UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Question-wise Analysis: Check Answers (2022)

UPSC CSE 2022 Prelims GS Paper was conducted on June 05, 2022, from 9:30 AM to 11:30 AM. There were a total of 100 questions asked on the topics mentioned by the UPSC in the UPSC CSE Prelims GS syllabus. The UPSC Prelims Paper 2 will be held from 2:30 PM. to 4:30 PM. The candidates can check the detailed analysis for the UPSC CSE GS Question Paper here.

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UPSC CSE Prelims 2022 General Studies Questions

The candidates can check the questions asked in the UPSC Prelims GS Paper-1 below:

Ques. 1: “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?

  1. Asian Development Bank
  2. International Monetary Fund
  3. United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative
  4. World Bank

Subject- Current Affairs

Topic- International Institutions

Difficulty Level - Easy

Answer- B

Explanation- The Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) provides rapid financial assistance, which is available to all member countries facing an urgent balance of payments need. The RFI was created as part of a broader reform to make the IMF’s financial support more flexible to address the diverse needs of member countries. The RFI replaced the IMF’s previous emergency assistance policy and can be used in a wide range of circumstances.

Ques. 2 Which refrence to the Indian Economy, consider the following statements;

  1. An increase in the Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
  2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates improvement in trade competitiveness.
  3. An increasing in trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in order countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.
  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Subject-Economic and Social Development

Topic- Exchange Rate

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - C

Ques. 3: With reference to the Indian Economy, consider the follwing?

  1. If the inflation is too high, RBI is likely to buy government securities
  2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market
  3. If intereste rate in USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars

Which of the following is correct?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Subject- Economic and Social Development

Topic- Inflation

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - B

Ques. 4: With reference to the “G 20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements:

  1. It is the initiative endorsed by G 20 together with the Paris Club.
  2. It is the initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsuitable debt.
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Subject- Current Affairs

Topic- International Institutions

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - C

Explanation- The G20 Common Framework for debt treatment beyond the DSSI (Common Framework) is an initiative endorsed by the G20, together with the Paris Club, last November to support, in a structural manner, Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt

Ques. 5: With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of "Inflation-Indexed

Bonds (IIBs)" ?

  1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of III3s.

from uncertainty regarding inflation.

  1. The interest received as well as capital
  2. Denominated Bonds overseas gains on IIBs are not taxable.

Subject- Economic and Social Development

Topic- Capital Markets

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - A

Explanation - Statement 3 is incorrect: No special tax exemption on IIBs ; Law of Elimination Statement 1 is also incorrect as IIBs have fixed coupon rate.

Ques 6. With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms, operating in India, which of the

following statements is/are correct ?

'1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as

arising out of its investment market-places.

  1. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.

Select the correct answer given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 2 both
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Subject- Current Affairs

Topic- e-commerce rules

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - B

Explanation - E-commerce entity providing a marketplace will not exercise ownership over the inventory i.e. goods purported to be sold. Such an ownership over the inventory will render the business into inventory based model. v) An e-commerce entity will not permit more than 25% of the sales affected through its marketplace from one vendor or their group companies.

Ques 7. Which of the following activities constitute the real sector in the economy?

  1. Farmers harvesting their crops
  2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics
  3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company
  4. A corporate body issuing Rupee denominated bonds oversees

Select the correct answer among the following:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 1, 2 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Subject-Economic and Social Development

Topic- Sectors of economy

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - A

Explanation -The real economy concerns the production, purchase and flow of goods and services (like oil, bread and labour) within an economy. It is contrasted with the financial economy, which concerns the aspects of the economy that deal purely in transactions of money and other financial assets, which represent ownership or claims to ownership of real sector goods and services.

Ques 8. With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

  1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.
  2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered to be revenue expenditure.

Select the correct answer given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 2 both
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Subject-Economic and Social Development

Topic- Expenditure

Difficulty Level - Easy

Answer - A

Explanation -Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure. Satement 1 is correct. Equity Financing is used to fund both Capital and Revenue Expenditure. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

Ques. 10: Which reference to the Indian Economy considered the following statements:

  1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
  2. Dated securities issued ar market-related rates in auction form a large component of internal debt.

Select the correct answer given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 2 both
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Subject-Economic and Social Development

Topic- Government Borrowing

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - C

Explanation - Statement 1 is correct: As the households invest i banks, insurance, mutual funds, Pension funds, Savings schemes which invest in government securities.

Statement 2 is correct: Internal debt of the Central Government (` 47.8 trillion, 38.1 per cent of GDP at end-March 2015) largely consists of fixed tenor and fixed rate market borrowings, viz., dated securities and treasury bills. As at end of March 2015, dated securities (`39.6 trillion, 31.6 per cent of GDP) accounted for 77.0 per cent of public debt while the treasury bills (`3.9 trillion, 3.1 per cent of GDP) accounted for 7.6 per cent of public debt.

Ques 11. Consider the following statements:

  1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanya Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act,1971 was passed.
  2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
  3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
  4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt

Select the correct answer among the following:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 3 and 4 only
  4. 3 only

Subject-Polity and Governance

Topic- Court of Record

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - B

Explanation - Q1.Statement 1 is right: A committee was set up under the chairmanship of H. N. Sanyal in 1961 to address uncertainty in existing law and the report was submitted in 1963. Further, a joint committee considered these recommendations and prepared the draft of the act on Contempt of Court which was accepted 1971.

Statement 2 is right: Article 129 and 215 of the Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and High Court respectively to punish people for their respective contempt.

Statement 3 is wrong. Constitution of India does not define Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt

Statement 4 is right. Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed by Parliament.

Ques 12. With reference to India, consider the following

  1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
  2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Subject - Polity and Governance

Difficulty Level - Difficult

Answer - B

Explanation - Statement 1 is incorrect: A lawyer is a person who is pursuing or completed the degree of law or who is a law graduate. When a lawyer enrols himself with a bar council then he becomes an advocate.

A patent attorney or patent lawyer is an advocate. This means that an individual who has a law degree and has enrolled with a State Bar Council is an advocate who can deal with patent litigation and is hence a patent attorney.

statement 2 is correct: Bar Council of India visits and inspects Universities/Law colleges in the country as part of its statutory function of promoting legal education and laying down standards in consultation with the Universities in India and the State Bar Councils.

Ques 13. Consider the following statements :

  1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
  2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
  3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and th Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Subject - Polity and Governance

Topic - Amendment

Difficulty Level - Easy

Answer - B

Explanation - Statement 1 is wrong: CAA does not require the President's prior recommendation.

  1. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
  2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Subject - Polity and Governance

Topic - Council of Ministers

Difficulty Level -

Answer - B

Explanation - Statement 1 is wrong as it is not classified by Constitution

Statement 2 is correct: The total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members of the House of the People.

  1. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?

To ratify the declaration of Emergency

To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers

To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Subject - Polity and Governance

Topic - Parliament

Difficulty Level - Easy

Answer - B

Explanation - Statement 1 is wrong as both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha have equal powers in this regard. Statement 2 is right. Statement 3 is wrong. Both Houses have equal powers in respect to the impeachment of President

  1. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:

The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.

The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Subject - Polity and Governance

Topic - Parliament

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - B

Explanation - Statement 1 is wrong. If a Nominated member joins a party six months after he becomes a member of the legislature, a person is liable to disqualification. Statement 2 is right. Law does not provide any timeframe

  1. Consider the following statements:

Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.

According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Subject - Polity and Governance

Topic - Attorney General

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - D

Explanation - Statement 1 is wrong Article 72 says Every minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote. Statement 2 is wrong as it is only a convention

  1. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public duty.

Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.

Any public-minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the Writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Subject- Polity and Governance

Topic - Writs

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - C

Explanation - Statement 2 is wrong. Mandamus can be issued against any public body or corporation.

  1. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:

Private and public hospitals must adopt it.

As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.

It has seamless portability across the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Subject - Current Affairs

Topic - Health

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - B

Explanation - Statement 1 is wrong as it is not mandatory.

  1. With reference to the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
  1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
  2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
  3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
  4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

Subject - Polity and Governance

Topic - Dy Speaker

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - A

Explanation - Statement 1 is correct -As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, “The Deputy Speaker election shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. Statement 2 is wrong. There is no such mandatory provision. Statement 4 is wrong. There is no such well established parliamentary procedure

  1. Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide ?

(a) Cotton

(b) Rice

(c) Sugarcane

(d) Wheat

Subject - Environment

Topic - Agriculture

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - B

Explanation - Wet rice fields are the anthropogenic source of Methane and Nitrous oxide, Hence (B) is the right answer.

  1. “System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields are practised, results in :
  1. Reduced seed requirement
  2. Reduced methane production
  3. Reduced electricity consumption

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Subject - Current Affairs

Topic - Agriculture

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - D

Explanation - System of Rice intensification is helpful as it requires fewer inputs in terms of seeds and water, Further, methane emission is reduced. Thus, dual benefits can be obtained. Hence (D) is the right answer.

  1. Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert ?

(a) Lake Victoria

(b) Lake Faguibine

(c) Lake Oguta

(d) Lake Volta

Subject - Environment

Topic - Climate change & global Warming

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - B

(Video) UPSC CSE Prelims 2022 Paper 1 GS Analysis | Complete Solutions, Answer Key & Expected Cutoff

Explanation - On the edge of Mali's Timbuktu, Lake Faguibine is drying and turning into desert. Hence (B) is the right answer.

  1. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers ?

(a) Cauvery

(b) Manjira

(c) Pennar

(d) Tungabhadra

Subject - India and World Geography

Topic - Riverine Landforms

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - C

Explanation - The Pennar River forms a grand canyon in Andhra Pradesh's Pennar Hills near village Gandikota. the canyon is named after the Village. Hence (C) is the right answer.

  1. Consider the following pairs Peak Mountains

Namcha Barwa - Garhwal Himalaya

Nanda Devi – Kumaon Himalaya

Nokrek – Sikkim Himalaya

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Subject - India and World Geography

Topic - Mountains & Peaks

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - B

Explanation - Namcha Barwa lies in Arunachal Pradesh where the Brahmaputra forms syntaxis Bend. Nanda Devi is regarded as the "Bliss giving Goddess" of Kumaon and Garhwal Himalayas. Nokrek peak lies in Garo Hills of Meghalaya. Hence (B) is the right answer.

  1. The term “Levant" often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions ?

(a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores

(b) Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco

(c) Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa

(d) The entire coastal areas of Mediterranean Sean

Subject - India and World Geography

Topic - maps and regions

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - A

Explanation - The Levant region is considered as the region on the eastern shore of the Mediterranean, which is present day, Lebanon, Israel, Palestine, Jordan Syria. Hence (a) is the right answer.

  1. Consider the following countries:
  1. Azerbaijan
  2. Kyrgyzstan
  3. Tajikistan
  4. Turkmenistan
  5. Uzbekistan

Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan ?

(a) 1, 2 and 5 only

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 3, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Subject - India and World Geography

Topic - Map Based question

Difficulty Level - Easy

Answer - C

Explanation - Afghanistan shares border with Tajikistan, Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan in the North, China India and Pakistan in the east & South, and Iran on the west. Hence (C) is right answer.

  1. With reference to India, consider the following statements :
  1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.
  2. Monazite contains thorium.
  3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.
  4. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Subject - India and World Geography

Topic - Mineral resources

Difficulty Level - Difficult

Answer - B

Explanation - Monazite is a rare earth mineral, which are found in coastal sand. however it is not found in entire coastal states. due to its nuclear properties, it is processed and exported by Government only. Hence, (B) is the right answer.

  1. In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the:

(a) First half of the month of June

(b) Second half of the month of June

(c) First half of the month of July

(d) Second half of the month of July

Subject - India and World Geography

Topic - solar system

Difficulty Level - Easy

Answer - B

Explanation - Summer solstice which occurs on 21st June is when the day is longest in northern Hemisphere. as sun is vertical above the tropic of cancer. Hence (B) is right answer.

  1. Consider the following pairs :

Wetland / Lake Location

Hokera Wetland – Punjab

Renuka Wetland – Himachal Pradesh

Rudrasagar Lake — Tripura

Sasthamkotta Lake – Tamil Nadu

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

Subject - India and World Geography

Topic - wetlands

Difficulty Level - Difficult

Answer - B

Explanation - Hokera wetland - J& K; Renuka Wetland - Himachal Pradesh; Rudrasagar Lake - Tripura; Sasthamkotta lake - Kerala Hence (B) is the right answer.

  1. Consider the following:
  1. Aarogya Setu
  2. Cowin
  3. DigiLocker
  4. DIKSHA

Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Subject - Current Affairs

Topic - Awareness In The Fields Of It, Space, Computers, Robotics, Nano-Technology, Bio-Technology, Pharma Sector & Health Science

Difficult Level - Medium

Answer - D

Explanation - Many solutions launched by the government including Digilocker, Diksha, Aarogya Setu, the Covid-19 vaccination platform CoWIN — built on top of open-source digital platforms — have benefited from valuable inputs provided by volunteer open-source developers. Hence option (D) is correct.

  1. With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements :

Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data.

In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks.

Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Subject - Current Affairs

Topic - Awareness In The Fields Of It, Space, Computers, Robotics, Nano-Technology, Bio-Technology, Pharma Sector & Health Science

Difficulty Level - Difficult

Answer - D

Explanation - Web 3.0 is highly decentralized, driven by machine learning and artificial intelligence, and leverages blockchain technology. The result is real-world human communication. Statement 1 is correct. Users retain control over their data and content, and they can sell or trade their data without losing ownership, risking privacy or relying on intermediaries. In this business model, users can log into a website without having their internet identity tracked. Statement 2 and 3 is correct.Decentralised internet based on blockchain technology will empower legions of social media creators and reduce their dependence on large social media platforms

Hence,option D is correct.

  1. With reference to "Software as a Service (SaaS)”, consider the following statements :

SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields.

SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices.

Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS. .

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 Subject - Science and Technology

Topic - Awareness In The Fields Of It, Space, Computers, Robotics, Nano-Technology, Bio-Technology, Pharma Sector & Health Science

Difficulty level - Difficult

Answer - D

Explanation - Statement 2 is correct :With data stored in the cloud, users can access their information from any Internet-connected computer or mobile device. And when app data is stored in the cloud, no data is lost if a user’s computer or device fails. Statement 3 is correct. A web-based email service such as Outlook, Hotmail or Yahoo! Mail, then you have already used a form of SaaS. Statement 1 is correct : The ability for each user to easily customise applications to fit their business processes without affecting the common infrastructure. Because of the way SaaS is architected, these customisations are unique to each company or user and are always preserved through upgrades. That means SaaS providers can make upgrades more often, with less customer risk and much lower adoption cost.

Hence, option D is correct

  1. Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media ?

(a) A hypersonic missile is -launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.

(b) A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.

(c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.

(d) A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface.'

Subject - Current Affairs

Topic - Awareness In The Fields Of It, Space, Computers, Robotics, Nano-Technology, Bio-Technology, Pharma Sector & Health Science

Difficulty Level - Difficult

Answer - C

Explanation - The idea behind FOBS is, a warhead is put into a stable orbit and it deorbits over the target. If the target and the launch position is lined up and the warhead keeps going round, it will complete a circle. Hence, option c is correct.

  1. Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned?

(a) Cloud Services

(b) Quantum Computing

(c) Visible Light Communication Technologies

(d) Wireless Communication Technologies

Subject - Current Affairs

Topic - Awareness In The Fields Of It, Space, Computers, Robotics, Nano-Technology, Bio-Technology, Pharma Sector & Health Science

Difficulty Level - Easy

Answer - B

Explanation - Quantum computers are different from classical computers that compute in bits represented by 0s and 1s. Quantum computers compute in qubits to solve problems that cannot be understood by classical computers.Hence, option B is correct.

  1. Consider the following communication technologies :
  1. Closed-circuit Television
  2. Radio Frequency Identification
  3. Wireless Local Area Network

Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d). 1, 2 and 3

Subject - Science and Technology

Topic - Awareness In The Fields Of It, Space, Computers, Robotics, Nano-Technology, Bio-Technology, Pharma Sector & Health Science.

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - D

Explanation - Short Range Devices (SRD) are radio devices that offer a low risk of interference with other radio services, usually because their transmitted power, and hence their range, is low. The definition 'Short Range Device' may be applied to many different types of wireless equipment, including various forms of:

Access control (including door and gate openers)

Alarms and movement detectors

Closed-circuit television (CCTV)

Cordless audio devices, including wireless microphones

Industrial control

Local Area Networks

Medical implants

Metering devices

Remote control

Radio frequency identification (RFID)

Road Transport Telematics

Telemetry.

Hence, option D is correct.

  1. Consider the following statements :
  1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues.
  2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.
  3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Subject - Science and Technology

Topic - Awareness In The Fields Of It, Space, Computers, Robotics, Nano-Technology, Bio-Technology, Pharma Sector & Health Science.

Difficulty Level - Difficult

Answer - D

Explanation - Statement 3 is correct: Biofilm bacteria show much greater resistance to antibiotics than their free-living counterparts.

Statement 2 is correct Diverse microorganisms are able to grow on food matrixes and along with food industry infrastructures.

Statement 1 is correct: In the clinic, they are typically the cause of chronic, nosocomial, and medical device-related infections.

Hence, option D is correct.

  1. Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics :
  1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.
  2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not "naturally occur in our gut.
  3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 2 and 3

Subject - Science and Technology

Topic - Awareness In The Fields Of It, Space, Computers, Robotics, Nano-Technology, Bio-Technology, Pharma Sector & Health Science

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - C

Explanation - Probiotics are made of good live bacteria and/or yeasts that naturally live in your body.

The main job of probiotics, or good bacteria, is to maintain a healthy balance in your body. Good bacteria keeps you healthy by supporting your immune function and controlling inflammation. Certain types of good bacteria can also:

Help your body digest food.

Keep bad bacteria from getting out of control and making you sick.

Create vitamins.

Help support the cells that line your gut to prevent bad bacteria that you may have consumed (through food or drinks) from entering your blood.

Breakdown and absorb medications.

  1. In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements:

The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.

Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.

COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Subject - Current Affairs

Topic - Biotechnology

Difficulty Level - Easy

Answer - B

Explanation - Statement 1 is incorrect:Covishield vaccine, manufactured by the Serum Institute of India, is a Viral Vector-based Technology which is also used to manufacture Ebola vaccine.

Statement 2 is correct :Covaxin vaccine, manufactured by the Bharat Biotech, is a Whole-virion Inactivated Coronavirus Vaccine which is also used to manufacture vaccines like Influenza, Rabies and Hepatitis- A.

Statement 3 is correct :The Sputnik V vaccine is based on a proven well-studied human adenovirus vector platform; these vectors cause the common cold and have plagued humanity for millennia.

Hence, option B is correct.

  1. If a major solar storm (solar-flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible. effects on the Earth ?
  1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
  2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
  3. Power grids could be damaged.
  4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
  5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
  6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
  7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

(b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only

(Video) Analysis of UPSC Civil Services GS Prelims 2022 Questions | Science & Tech

(c) 1,3, 4, 6 and 7 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7.

Subject - Current Affairs

Topic - Awareness In The Fields Of It, Space, Computers, Robotics, Nano-Technology, Bio-Technology, Pharma Sector & Health Science

Difficulty Level - Difficult

Answer - C

Explanation - Solar flares (sudden brightenings) affect the ionosphere immediately, with adverse effects upon communications and radio navigation.Solar energetic particles arrive in 20 minutes to several hours, threatening the electronics of spacecraft and unprotected astronauts, as they rise to 10,000 times the quiet background flux.Ejected bulk plasma and its pervading magnetic field arrive in 30 - 72 hours (depending upon initial speed and deceleration) setting off a geomagnetic storm, causing currents to flow in the magnetosphere and particles to be energized. The currents cause atmospheric heating and increased drag for satellite operators; they also induce voltages and currents in long conductors at ground level, adversely affecting pipelines and electric power grids. The energetic particles cause the northern lights, as well as surface and deep dielectric charging of spacecraft; subsequent electrostatic discharge of the excess charge build-up can damage spacecraft electronics. The ionosphere departs from its normal state, due to the currents and the energetic particles, thereby adversely affecting communications and radio navigation.

Hence, option C is correct.

  1. "Climate Action Tracker" which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a :

(a) Database created by coalition of research organisations

(b) Wing of "International Panel of Climate Change"

(c) Committee under "United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change"

(d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank

Subject - Current Affairs

Topic - Climate Change related organisation

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - A

Explanation - The Climate Action Tracker (CAT) is an independent scientific analysis that measures government climate action against the globally agreed aim of holding warming well below 2°C, and pursuing efforts to limit warming to 1.5°C. It is produced by two research organisations: Climate Analytics, and New Climate Institute.

Hence, option A is correct.

  1. Consider the following statements :
  1. "The Climate Group" is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
  2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative "EP100".
  3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emmission reduction goals.
  4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
  5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the "Under2 Coalition".

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Subject - Current Affairs

Topic - Climate Action related Initiatives

Difficulty Level - Difficult

Answer - B

Explanation - Statement 1 is correct: Climate group is an international non-profit founded in 2003, created to drive climate action.

Statement 2 is incorrect: No such partnership exists

Statement 3 is correct: EP100 brings together over 120 energy smart businesses committed to measuring and reporting on energy efficiency improvements.

Statement 4 is correct: Mahindra group became the first Indian Company to join EP100.

Statement 5 is incorrect: Climate Group is the Secretariat to the Under2 Coalition and works with governments to accelerate climate action

Hence, option B is correct.

  1. "If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys." Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statements?

(a). The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.

(b). Algae from the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.

(c). Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.

(d). Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.

Subject - Environment

Topic - wetlands

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - A

Explanation - Natural wetlands have been called the 'kidneys of the landscape' because of their ability to store, assimilate and transform contaminants lost from the land before they reach waterways by this logic A seems to be the best explanation.

  1. In the context of In WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements:
  1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³.
  2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.
  3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
  4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 2 only

Subject - Current Affairs

Topic - Air Quality Guidelines

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - B

Explanation - Statement 2 is Incorrect: the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of sunny weather.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Both PM₂.₅ and PM₁₀ are capable of penetrating deep into the lungs but PM₂.₅ can even enter the bloodstream and not PM 10 Hence 1 and 4 are correct.

Hence, option B is correct.

  1. With reference to "Gucchi" sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a fungus.
  2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.
  3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north- eastern India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

Subject - Current Affairs

Topic - Geographical Indication

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - C

Explanation - A geographical indication (GI) tag has been sought for one of the costliest mushrooms in the world that grows in Jammu and Kashmir’s Doda district: Gucchi.

Statement 1 is Correct: this mushroom is a species of fungus in the family Morchellaceae of the Ascomycota

Statement 2 is Correct and 3 Incorrect: The mushroom grows in conifer forests across temperate regions, and the cool foothills of the Himalayas, in Himachal, Uttaranchal and Jammu & Kashmir are ideal territory for them.

Hence, option C is correct.

  1. With reference to polyethene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements:
  1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.
  2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.
  3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.
  4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emmisions.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 4

(d) 2 and 3

Subject - Environment

Topic - Plastic Pollution

Difficulty Level - Difficult

Answer - A

Explanation - Statement 1 is correct , Statement 2 is Incorrect : Extreme (says Any) , Statement 3 is correct , it can be recycled . Statement 4 is Incorrect: The Hindu article says they are hard to dispose of.

  1. Which of the following is not a bird ?

(a) Golden Mahseer

(b) Indian Nightjar

(c) Spoonbill

(d) White Ibis

Subject - Environment

Topic - Fauna Diversity

Difficulty Level - Easy

Answer - A

Explanation - Golden Masheer (A) is a Fish , Rest are Birds.

Hence,option A is correct.

  1. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants ?
  1. Alfalfa
  2. Amaranth
  3. Chickpea
  4. Clover
  5. Purslane (Kulfa)
  6. Spinach

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only

(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only

(d) 1, 2, 4,5 and 6

Subject - Environment

Topic - Nitrogen-Fixing Plants

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - A

Explanation - Amongst the List Clover, Alfalfa and Chickpea are nitrogen-fixing plants. Hence , option A is correct.

  1. "Biorock technology" is talked about in which one of the following situations?

(a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs

(b) Development of building materials using plant residues

(c) Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas

(d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas.

Subject - Current Affairs

Topic - Enviornmental Conservation

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - A

Explanation - Biorock Technology’, is a method that applies safe, low voltage electrical currents through seawater, causing dissolved minerals to crystallize on structures, growing into a white limestone (CaCo3) similar to that which naturally makes up coral reefs and tropical white-sand beaches.

Hence , option A is correct.

  1. The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the:

(a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas

(b) Development of gardens using genetically modified flora

(c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas

(d) Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces

Subject - Current Affairs

Topic - Environmental Conservation

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - C

Explanation - Miyawaki is an afforestation method based on the work of Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki in the 1980s , This method creates mini forests. The approach is supposed to ensure that plant growth is 10 times faster and the resulting plantation is 30 times denser than usual.

Hence , option c is correct.

  1. In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into “Reserved” and “Transferred” subjects. Which of the following were treated as “Reserved” subjects?
  1. Administration of Justice
  2. Local Self-Government
  3. Land Revenue
  4. Police

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Subject - Modern History

Topic - Historical Underpinnings and Evolution of Indian Constitution

Difficulty Level - Easy

Answer - C

Explanation - According to 1919 Act, Provincial Subjects were divided into two lists: ‘reserved’ and ‘transferred’.

The reserved list, under which the subjects were to be administered by the governor through his executive council of bureaucrats.

Reserved List included subjects such as law and order, finance, land revenue, irrigation etc.

All important subjects were kept in the reserved subjects of the Provincial Executive.

The transferred subjects were to be administered by ministers nominated from among the elected members of the legislative council.

It included subjects such as education, health, local government, industry, agriculture, excise, etc.

Therefore, Option (c) is the correct answer.

  1. In medieval India, the term “Fanam” referred to:

(a) Clothing

(b) Coins

(c) Ornaments

(d) Weapons

Subject - Medieval History

Topic - Economy & social Life in Medieval India

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - B

Explanation - In Medieval India, Fanam was type of Money which was issues in Southern Part, in the state of Travancore. The Travancore Fanam was a form of money issued by the State of Travancore in South India, which is today mostly a part of Kerala. Fanams (sometimes spelt Fanoms) and Chuckrams (or Chakrams) were renowned to be among the world's tiniest coins. Fanam appears to be an Anglo-Germanic sound shift from Panam, which in Dravidian languages denotes money. The Fanam and Chuckram coins were the standard unit of currency in Mediaeval Travancore, and they appear to have been widely utilised for trade in the South Indian region. In Kerala's original language, Malayalam, the words Fanam and Panam literally mean money and are still used as synonyms for riches. Therefore, option (b) is the Correct Answer.

  1. Consider the following freedom fighters:
  1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh
  1. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
  1. Rash Behari Bose

Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Subject - Modern History

Topic - Freedom Struggle

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - D

Explanation - Ras Behari Bose

Rash Behari Bose was a rebel in India who opposed the British Raj. He was a key organiser of the Ghadar Mutiny and established the First Indian National Army during World War II, based on Vinayak Damodar Savarkar's millitarization doctrine. During the Japanese invasion of Singapore, British Indian Army personnel defected to the INA. In 1938, he created the Hindu Mahasabha in Japan, with the help of Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, the president of the Hindu Mahasabha in India. Rash Behari Bose founded the Indian National Army (INA) in 1942, which he eventually handed over to Subhas Chandra Bose as the Indian National Army.

Barindra Kumar Gosh:

Barindra Kumar Ghosh, sometimes known as Barindra Ghosh or Barin Ghosh, was an Indian revolutionary and journalist who lived from 5 January 1880 until 18 April 1959. He was a founding member of Bengal's Jugantar Bengali weekly, a revolutionary organization. Sri Aurobindo's younger brother was Barindra Ghosh. He was not member of the Gadar party.

Jogesh Chandra Chatterji

Jogesh Chandra became a member of the Anushilan Samiti. He was one of the founder members of Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) (in 1924) that later became Hindustan Socialist Republican Association. He was arrested several times for revolutionary activities. He was tried in the Kakori conspiracy case in 1926 and received rigorous imprisonment for life.

He published two novels. 1) Conference of Indian Revolutionaries 2) In Search Of Freedom (as biography)

Jogesh Chandra joined the Congress Socialist Party in 1937, but quit soon after and founded the Revolutionary Socialist Party in 1940, of which he was the General Secretary from 1940 until 1953. From 1949 to 1953, he served as Vice-President of the United Trades Union Congress (the RSP's trade union branch) and as President of the United Socialist Organization for the year 1949 only.

After independence, he rejoined the Congress and was elected to the Rajya Sabha from Uttar Pradesh in 1956, where he stayed till his death on April 2, 1960.

He was not member of the Gadar party.

  1. With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements:
  1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States.
  2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Subject - Medieval History

Topic - Freedom Struggle

Difficulty Level - Difficult

Answer - C

Explanation - The establishment of an Indian dominion. This dominion would have the option of remaining a part of the British Commonwealth or seceding. It would be free to participate in international organisations as well.

A Constituent Assembly would be created to write the country's new constitution. Members of this Assembly would be elected by regional assemblies and nominated by princes.

Any province that does not want to join the Indian dominion might create its own union and write its own constitution.

Negotiations between the Constituent Assembly and the British administration would ensure the transfer of power and the rights of minorities.

In the meanwhile, until the new constitution takes effect, the British will manage India's defence and the Governor-powers General's will stay unchanged.

  1. With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts:
  1. Nettipakarana
  2. Parishishtaparvan
  3. Avadanashataka
  4. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana

Which of the above are Jaina texts?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Subject - Ancient History

Topic - Buddhism & Jainism

Difficulty Level - Difficult

Answer - B

Explanation - Nettipakarana and Avadanashataka are Buddhist texts. By eliminating 1 and 3, we find the option (b) as correct answer.

  1. With reference to Indian History, consider the following pairs:

Historical person Known as

Aryadeva — Jaina scholar

Dignaga — Buddhist scholar

Nathamuni — Vaishnava scholar

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) None of the pairs

(b) Only one pair

(c) Only two pairs

(d) All three pairs

Subject - Ancient History

Topic - Scholars of Buddhism

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - C

Explanation - Pair 1 is incorrect:

Aryadeva was Mahayana Buddhist Monk in 3rd Century CE who was a disciple of Nagarjuna and Madhyamaka Philosopher. Most sources agree that he was from "Siṃhala", which some scholars identify with Sri Lanka. After Nagarjuna, he is considered to be the next most important figure of the Indian Madhyamaka school.

Pair 2 is correct:

Dignāga (a.k.a. Diṅnāga, c. 480 – c. 540 CE) was an Indian Buddhist scholar and one of the Buddhist founders of Indian logic (hetu vidyā). Dignāga's work laid the groundwork for the development of deductive logic in India and created the first system of Buddhist logic and epistemology (Pramana)

Dignāga was born in Simhavakta near Kanchipuram and very little is known of his early years, except that he took Nagadatta of the Pudgalavada school as his spiritual preceptor, before being expelled and becoming a student of Vasubandhu.

(Video) Detailed Analysis of UPSC Prelims 2022 | GEOGRAPHY | GS Paper 1 - Answer Key, Cut Off, Explanation

Pair 3 is correct:

Sri Ranganathamuni, popularly known as Sriman Nathamuni (823 CE–951 CE), was a Vaishnava theologian who collected and compiled the Nalayira Divya Prabandham. Considered the first of Sri Vaishnava āchāryās, Nathamuni is also the author of Yogarahasya, and Nyāyatattva.

Therefore, option (c) only two Pairs is correct.

  1. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:
  1. The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji.
  2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city.
  3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongols.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Subject - Medieval History

Topic - Rulers of Medieval India

Difficulty Level - Difficult

Answer - B

Explanation - Statement 1 is incorrect: Chengez Khan invaded India during the reign of Iltumish for the first time. He was the founder and first Great Khan of the Mongol Empire.

Statement 2 is correct: During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one of the Mongol invasion reached till the outskirts of Delhi city and besieged it.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq defeated the Mongols and he had not lost any of the portions of his kingdom to them.

Source: The Mongols and Delhi Sultanate- Cambridge

  1. With reference to Indian history, who of the following were known as “Kulah-Daran”?

(a) Arab merchants

(b) Qalandars

(c) Persian calligraphists

(d) Sayyids

Subject - Medieval History

Topic - Social Life in Medieval India

Difficulty Level - Difficult

Answer - D

Explanation - The Sayyids put on a pointed cap ( Kulah ) and they were known as Kulah - Daran. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

  1. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:
  1. The Dutch established their factories/werehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers.
  2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate.
  3. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Subject - Modern History

Topic - Advent of Europeans in India

Difficulty Level - Difficult

Answer - B

Explanation - Statement 1 is incorrect:

The land granted For Dutch factories were given by Vijaayanagar Empire Rulers and not by Gajapati Rulers.

Statement 2 is correct:

In 1510 AD, Afonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Sultan of Bijapur, Ismail Adil Shah with the help of Krishnadev raya (ruler of Vijaynagar empire). He is also known to have abolished the practice of Sati in Goa.

Statement 3 is correct - In 1639 AD, the East India Company obtained the lease of the city of Madras from the local king where it built Fort St. George to protect its factory. Later Madras was made the South Indian headquarters of the company.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

.

  1. According to Kautiyla’s Arthahastra, which of the following are correct?
  1. A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment.
  2. If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free.
  3. If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, the son was entitled to the legal status of the master’s son.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Subject - Ancient India

Topic - Mauryan Period

Difficulty Level - Difficult

Answer - A

Explanation - Answer: (a)

Explanation: According to Kautilya’s Arthashatra,

Statement 1 is correct:

A person could be a slave as a result of judicial punishment.

Statement 2 is correct:

If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free.

Statement 3 is Incorrect:

Legal status as a son of the master was not necessarily given to the son which was born to the slave mother.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

  1. Consider the following statements :
  1. Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight.
  2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs).
  3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Subject - Economic and Social Development

Topic - Monetary Policy

Difficulty Level - Difficult

Answer - A

Explanation -Statement 1 is correct:

Tight monetary policy is an action undertaken by a central bank such as the Federal Reserve to slow down overheated economic growth.

Central banks engage in tight monetary policy when an economy is accelerating too quickly or inflation—overall prices—is rising too fast.

Hiking the federal funds rate–the rate at which banks lend to each other–increases borrowing rates and slows lending.

Statement 2 is correct:

Thus, in such condition, it will lead to capital flight from the country to another country where Tight Monetary Policy in function.

Due to the country's capital flight, its entities should offer higher interest on external commercial borrowings to attract investors, so that investors can make a similar or more profit than they would in a country where there is a higher rate of return on their investment.

Statement 3 is incorrect:

Devaluation of Home Currency can help in Balance of Payments and reduce these deficits. However Devaluation also increases the debt burden of foreign denominated loans such as External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) when priced in home currency thus, increases the Currency Risk.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

  1. Consider the following States :

Andhra Pradesh

Kerala

Himachal Pradesh

Tripura

How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States ?

(a) Only one State

(b) Only two States

(c) Only three States

(d) All four States

Subject - India and World Geography

Topic - Agriculture

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - D

Explanation - Major tea- producing states are Assam, hills of Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Apart from these, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh and Tripura are also tea-producing states in the country. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

  1. Consider the following statements :
  1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India.
  2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
  3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Subject - Economic and Social Development

Topic - Banking and Monetary policy

Difficulty Level - Easy

Answer - B

Explanation - In India, credit rating agencies are

regulated by SEBI. Hence statement 1 is not correct. The rating agency popularly known as. ICRA is a public limited company. Hence statement 2 is correct.Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit

rating agency. It is a bengaluru based company registered with SEBI.Hence statement 3 is correct. Therefore, Option b is the correct answer.

  1. With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB), which of the following statements are correct ?
  1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB.
  2. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks.
  3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Subject - Economic and Social Development

Topic - Banking and Monetary policy

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - B

Explanation - The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB since April 2018, has been headed by former Secretary in the Department of Personnel and Training B P Sharma. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. Hence statement 2 is correct.

BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Hence Option B is correct

  1. With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider pin the following statements :
  1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest.
  2. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Subject - Economic and Social Development

Topic - Banking and Monetary policy

Difficulty Level - Difficult

Answer - C

Explanation - both statements are correct

  1. Consider the following:
  1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
  2. Missile Technology Control Regime
  3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

India is a member of which of the above ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Subject - Current Affairs

Difficulty Level - Easy

Answer - D

Explanation - India is member of all three organisations.

  1. Consider the following statements :
  1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in the recent years.
  2. Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system.
  3. Vietnam's economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports.
  4. For a long time Vietnam's low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers.
  5. Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 2 and 4

(b) 3 and 5

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 2

Subject - Miscellaneous

Difficulty Level - Difficult

Answer - C

Explanation - Vietnam is led by one-party system. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Thus we can eliminate option a and option d.

  1. In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation ?

(a) Department of Consumer Affairs

(b) Expenditure Management Commission

(c) Financial Stability and Development Council

(d) Reserve Bank of India

Subject - Economic and Social Development

Topic - Monetary Policy

Difficulty Level - Easy

Answer - D

Explanation - RBI is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation.

  1. With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements :
  1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets.
  2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain.
  3. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only 1

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Subject - Economic and Social Development

Topic - Current Affairs

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - A

Difficulty Level - They enable the digital representation of physical assets. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  1. Consider the following pairs:

Reservoirs States

Ghataprabha – Telangana

Gandhi Sagar – Madhya Pradesh

Indira Sagar – Andhra Pradesh

Maithon – Chhattisgarh

How many pairs given above are not correctly matched ?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

Subject - India and World Geography

Topic - Miscellaneous

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - C

Explanation - Ghatprabha reservoir is in Karnataka. Hence pair 1 is not correct.

Gandhi sagar is in Madhya Pradesh. Hence pair 2 is correct.

Indira sagar reservoir is in Madhya Pradesh. Hence pair 3 is not correct.

Maithon reservoir is in Jharkhand. Hence pair 4 is not correct.

Only three pair are not correct.

Therefore, option c is the correct answer.

  1. In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers?

(a) Central Statistics Office

(b) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade

(c) Labour Bureau

(d) National Technical Manpower Information System

Subject - Current Affairs

Topic - Industry

Difficulty Level - Difficult

Answer - C

Explanation - The Labour Bureau publishes statistics on "Industrial Disputes, Closures, Retrenchments, and Lay-offs in India" based on voluntary returns received each month from state labour departments and the regional labour commissioner.

  1. In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO) ?
  1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India.
  2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.
  3. It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas.
  4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Subject - Current Affairs

Topic - Industry

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer -A

Explanation - According to Under Collection of Statistics Act, 2008 & Under Coal Bearing Area (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957 - Coal Controller has been made the statistical authority with respect to coal and lignitea statistics. Entrusted with the responsibility of carrying out Annual Coal & Lignite survey and publishing of Provisional Coal Statistics and Coal Directory of India.

(Video) Analysis of UPSC Civil Services GS Prelims 2022 Questions | Economics

Coal Controller is the competent authority under this act to hear any objection to the Central Government’s Notification relating to the acquisition of coal bearing land and to furnish his reports to Central Govt. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

  1. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?

(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.

(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.

(c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.

(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.

Subject - Polity and Governance

Topic - Schedules of Indian Constitution

Difficulty Level - Easy

Answer - A

Explanation - Schedule-V constitutional provisions also provide safeguards against tribal population displacement due to land acquisition, etc. In such cases, the Governor of the State with Scheduled Areas has the authority to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land from tribals and to regulate the allotment of land to members of Scheduled Tribes.

  1. Consider the following statements:
  1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
  2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs ‘in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Subject - Current Affairs

Topic - Government Policies

Difficulty Level - Medium

Answer - B

Explanation - Statement 1 - The India Sanitation Coalition was launched on June 25, 2015, at FICCI, New Delhi. ISC is a multi-stakeholder platform that brings together the private sector, government, financial institutions, civil society groups, media, donors/bi-lateral/multilateral, experts etc. to work in the sanitation space to drive sustainable sanitation through a partnership model.

Statement 2 - Established in 1976, the National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is India’s leading national think tank on urban planning and development. As a hub for the generation and dissemination of cutting-edge research in the urban sector, NIUA seeks to provide innovative solutions to address the challenges of a fast urbanizing India, and pave the way for more inclusive and sustainable cities of the future.

  1. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?

(a) Central Water Commission

(b) Central Ground Water Board

(c) Central Ground Water Authority

(d) National Water Development Agency

Subject - Environment

Topic - Water Resources

Difficulty Level - Easy

Answer - C

Explanation - The Central Ground Water Authority was established under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act of 1986 to regulate and control the development and management of ground water resources in the country.

  1. With reference to the “United Nations Credentials Committee”, consider the following statements:

It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.

It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year.

It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2

Correct Option: (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The United Nations Credentials Committee is a committee of the United Nations General Assembly

Statement 2 is incorrect: A Credentials Committee is appointed at the beginning of each regular session of the General Assembly.

Statement 3 is correct: Its main purpose is to report to the Assembly regarding the credentials of the body's representatives.

Source: www.un.org

  1. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?

(a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.

(b) It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.

(c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.

(d) It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.

  1. With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements:

The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States.

Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.

Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

  1. With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements:

The Tea Board is a statutory body.

It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.

The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(c) and 4

(d) 1 and 4

  1. Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing” ?

(a) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound

(b) Non-inclusion of ecological/environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country

(c) Ignoring the disastrous ecological consequences while undertaking infrastructure development

(d) Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme

  1. Consider the following statements :

High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.

Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause warming effect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

  1. Consider the following statements:

Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western Kenya.

Some people who fled from South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi.

Some people who fled from civil war in Somalia live in Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

  1. Consider the following countries

Armenia

Azerbaijan

Croatia

Romania

Uzbekistan

Which of the above are members of the Organization of Turkic States?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 5

(d) 3, 4 and 5

  1. onsider the following statements

Gujarat has the largest solar park in India.

Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport.

Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India.

Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

  1. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements:

A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.

Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.

The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea in measure.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

  1. Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue which Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news?

(a) It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around South China Sea.

(b) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea

(c) A permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defence capabilities.

(d) Through International Courts of Justice declared them as no man’s land, some South-East Asian countries claim them.

  1. Consider the following pairs

Country- Important reason for being in the news recently

  1. Chad - Setting up of permanent military base by Chine
  2. Guinea - Suspension of Constitution and Government by military
  3. Lebanon - Severe and prolonged economic depression
  4. Tunisia - Suspension of Parliament by President

How many pairs given above are correcly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four Pairs

  1. Consider the following pairs :

Region often mentioned, in the news

Country

  1. Anatolia - Turkey
  1. Amhara - Ethiopia
  1. Cabo Delgado - Spain
  1. Catalonia - Italy

How many pairs given above are .correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d)All four pairs

  1. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:

Wild animals are the sole property of the government.

When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.

Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

  1. Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?

(a) Ant

(b) Cockroach

(c) Crab

(d) Spider

  1. Consider the following pairs :

Site of Ashoka’s major rock edicts - Location in the State of

  1. Dhauli - Odisha
  2. Erragudi- Andhra Pradesh
  3. Jaugada - Madhya Pradesh
  4. Kalsi - Karnataka

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

  1. Consider the following pairs:

King - Dynasty

  1. Nannuka - Chandela
  2. Jayashakti - Paramara
  3. Nagabhata II - Gurjara-Pratihara
  4. Bhoja - Rashtrakuta

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

  1. Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct ?

(a) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture.

(b) The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.

(c) Sangam poems have no references to warrior ethic.

(d) Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational.

  1. “Yogavasistha” was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of:

(a) Akbar

(b) Humayun

(c) Shahjahan

(d) Aurangzeb

  1. The world’s second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the, teachings of Ramanuja?

(a) The best means of salvation was devotion.

(b) Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly authoritative.

(c) Logical arguments were essential means for the highest bliss.

(d) Salvation was to be obtained through meditation.

  1. The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple ?

Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines.

A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni.

Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

  1. Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body ?

(a) They protect the body from environmental allergens.

(b) They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation.

(c) They act as immunosuppressants in the body.

(d) They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.

  1. Consider the following statements:

Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature.

Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics.

Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) .1 only

(b). 3 only

(c). 1 and 2

(d). 2 and 3

  1. Consider the following statements:

DNA Barcoding can be a tool to :

assess the age of a plant or animal.

distinguish among species that look alike.

identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

  1. Consider the following

Carbon monoxide

Nitrogen oxide

Ozone

Sulphur dioxide

Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

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